Monday, April 09, 2012

A Respectful Reply to 'Jon'

Jon
Thank you for your helpful response. I am, however, concerned with what Adam Smith wrote in Wealth Of Nations, which is the original dispute that Chomsky expressed in his critique of Milton Friedman, a voice for rightist views in public debate. I observe that both Chomsky and yourself (both ‘leftist’?) also make comments at variance with Adam Smith’s writings, not just about his two references to “an invisible hand”.

You accept that Smith did not write of globalization as experienced in the 20th-21st centuries. You challenge my reading of Smith in Book IV, chapter 2 of Wealth Of Nations, and I am grateful for your observations and comments. Others also quote the paragraphs mentioned by you, for example, David Friedman (no relation?), a libertarian, who posted to me on Lost Legacy a couple of years ago.

In paragraph 1, Smith gives examples of the consequences of ‘Restraints upon the Importation from foreign commerce of such goods as can be produced at home’. That these restraints, Smith says in paragraph 2, benefit domestic industry and employment “cannot be doubted”, but whether that benefits society “is not, perhaps, altogether so evident”. His general proposition is that “general industry” can “never exceed what the capital of the society can employ”, but regulations cannot increase the employed capital; they can only divert it, which may not be as “advantageous to the society than that into which it would have gone of its own accord” (paragraph 3).

He switches to consider the individual exerting himself to “find out” the most advantageous employment for his capital, and this “finding out” process is naturally “most advantageous to society”, even though he seeks his own “advantage” (paragraph 4). He seeks to invest locally “as near home as he can”, which supports “domestick industry”, guided by “ordinary, or not a great deal less than ordinary profits” (paragraph 5). You quote part of paragraph 6 part. The other part, unquoted, says

In the home–trade his capital is never so long out of his sight as it frequently is in the foreign trade of consumption. He can know better the character and situation of the persons whom he trusts, and if he should happen to be deceived, he knows better the laws of the country from which he must seek redress. In the carrying trade, the capital of the merchant is, as it were, divided between two foreign countries, and no part of it is ever necessarily brought home, or placed under his own immediate view and command’ (paragraph 6, lines 3 to 5).

These express considerations of risk in trading outside “domestick industry”, including that of the “foreign trade of consumption” and “the carrying trade”, which were more riskier than distant parts of “domestick industry”. Smith gives over the long rest of the paragraph to give examples from distant foreign trade (paragraph 6, lines 8 – 32). The merchant, to avoid risks and trouble, when engaged in foreign trade, will always be glad to sell his cargoes domestically, and as a consequence will “put into motion a greater quantity of domestick industry [that] gives revenue and employment to the greatest number of people of his own country”. It is this convenience and security (lower risks) that leads to the consequence of “home being the centre, if I [Smith] may say so, round which the capitals … continually circulate”. The “natural” inclination to employ his capital in this manner, driven by risks of foreign or distant trade “gives revenue and employment to the greatest number of people in his own country” (paragraph 6 and 7). he whole is the sum of its parts.

This is clearly a consequential outcome of his risks, concerns and trouble of foreign trade, which also has the necessary consequence of slower turnover of his capital overseas – instead of turning over his capital for profit in months, the merchant may have to wait years (Smith discusses this elsewhere in Wealth Of Nations).

The inhibitions of some, but not all merchants (foreign trade was an increasingly significant element of the British economy from the 14th century) leading them to trade domestically’ is the object of his use of the metaphor of “an invisible hand”, which was a metaphor to “describe in a more striking and interesting manner” the personal inhibitions of traders in “domestick industry” (see Smith’s Lectures on Rhetoric, 1762). The metaphor had nothing to do him preferring to better "his home country' which caused him to be "led by an invisible hand” as an expression of a public benefit. Smith specifically says that he is “led by an invisible hand to promote an end which was no part of his intention” (the betterment of a public benefit), because "by pursuing his own interest (avoiding the risks and trouble of foreign trade) ‘he frequently promotes that of society more effectually than when intends to promote it” (paragraph 9). In short the "betterment" came as a consequence of him being "led by an invisible hand"; it was not the cause of him acting in this manner to avoid risk to the security of his capital. If he preferred to "better his country", it would not be consequence, but the reason for acting thus.

I have tried to persuade “rightist” authors (David Friedman, Daniel Klein, and my friends in the Adam Smith Institute – where – disclosure – I am a Fellow, but so far to no avail) and ‘leftist authors, writing in defence of Chomsky (also, so far, to no avail). My concerns are nothing to do with 21st-century squabbles; they are in defence of Adam Smith and his legacy; I do not take sides in the Cold-War legacy in modern economics, inspired by false attributions, since Paul Samuelson’s 1948 text, Economics: an introductory analysis.

Many thanks, Jon, for your attention and interest.

Labels: , , ,

Thursday, August 26, 2010

David Friedman Replies to the Invisible Hand Debate

"The first part of David's question (was Smith making a general statement about all individuals are 'led by an invisible hand')"

Since I never suggested that Smith was making a general statement that all individuals are led by an invisible hand, I do not see how this is relevant to what I posted. Your claim was that it was a statement only about people choosing to invest at home rather than abroad. There is a large range between that and "all individuals." Smith makes it explicit that his point applies to many other cases, hence the claim that it applies to only that one cannot be true. That doesn't require, nor does Smith suggest, that the point applies to every individual.

"Smith is not making a general statement or axiom in this paragraph."

He does however write that the same pattern holds in many other cases, which makes it clear that his point is not limited to the particular case you claimed. And he points out some of the other cases, without the metaphor of the invisible hand, elsewhere in the text--as I have already mentioned. Obviously he doesn't think that people are always lead by an invisible hand to do the right thing--if they were, the merchants and manufacturers wouldn't be lobbying for trade restrictions and monopoly privileges and the like.

I think it's clear, taking the statement in the context not of Smith's views of metaphor but his view of economics, that his point is that self-interest within a suitable legal framework generally leads to desirable results--more desirable than the results produced by top down central planning ("and which would nowhere be so dangerous as in the hands of a man who had folly and presumption enough to fancy himself fit to exercise it."). And what is relevant to that is not where he uses the metaphor of the invisible hand but where he makes that claim.

He doesn't have adequate tools to offer anything close to a rigorous argument, and in some places his intuition leads him astray--including the particular case of foreign vs domestic investment. The reasons he offers why investors prefer domestic investment at roughly equal returns are relevant to the efficiency of doing so, but they have very little to do with the reasons why Smith thinks that doing so is socially desirable. Put in modern terms, investing at home raises the domestic capital to labor ratio, benefitting domestic sellers of labor (and harming foreign sellers of labor), with the opposite effects on sellers of capital. That has nothing to do with the fact that the risk adjusted return on capital is higher at home if the non-adjusted rates are equal, which is, in modern terminology, the reason Smith's capitalists prefer to invest at home.

"In the 1920s and 1930s the invisible hand (focusing on versions of selfishness/self interest leading to social maxima in output or welfare) began to appear in isolation"

I think you will find the argument, although not necessarily with Smith's metaphor, in Marshall, although since I'm travelling at the moment--this post is being sent from a car driving across California, via a laptop and tethered cell phone--I can't offer you a specific passage.

Do send me your piece on Samuelson--I'm curious as to which of you is misreading either the other or Smith. Also you might (or might not) find my lecture notes from teaching history of thought, largely on Smith, of interest.

http://www.daviddfriedman.com/Academic/Course_Pages/History_of_Thought_98/History_of_Thought_98.html
--
David Friedman
www.daviddfriedman.com
daviddfriedman.blogspot.com/

Labels: ,