Genuine Question on a Baffling Statement
“The invisible hand of grammaticalization”
“West-Germanic
substitutive infinitive and the prefix ge-
“Grammaticalization may have therapeutic and pathological effects on
morphology. The paper will focus on these latter with special regard to the
occurrence of a morpheme in an unexpected form as is the case for the West-
Germanic substitutive infinitive. The reason for this mysterious case of
formmeaning mismatch must be sought in the grammaticalization of the Germanic
telic prefix *ga-. As a
consequence of its grammaticalization in the past participle, a semantic
incompatibility prevented the so-called AcI-verbs from being touched by the
grammaticalization wave spreading the perfect periphrasis throughout the whole
verbal system. Thus, the arguably default form came in, namely the infinitive,
whereby the perfect periphrasis could be completely paradigmaticized even
though at the cost of a form/meaning mismatch. In this light, the long-wave
effect of grammaticalization can be made responsible for the anomaly preserved
until today in all West-Germanic dialects, in which ge- was grammaticalized as
an inflectional marker.”
Comment
When you do not know what someone is talking about, it is probably best to
say nothing.
So I shall abstain on this occasion. But as a metaphor describes its
object in a “more striking and interesting manner” (Adam Smith, 1762-3, p. 29. “Lectures
on Rhetoric and Belles Lettres”, Oxford University Press and Liberty Press, my
question to Livio Gaeta would be: of what object does the IH metaphor on this
occasion refer?
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