Adam Smith: Left or Right?
In Paul Walker’s
excellent Blog, Anti-Dismal, (New Zealand) HERE
He posts an
informative article on a very modern issue, basically on whether Adam Smith
leaned either to the “Left” or the “Right” (a somewhat anachronistic distinction,
given these distinguishing terms refer to the accidental location of whether
French revolutionaries who sat on the left or the right sides of the French
assembly meeting hall, a event after Smith died in 1790).
Paul writes:
“In a forthcoming
article (“Adam Smith: Left or Right?”) in the journal Political Studies well-known Adam Smith scholar Craig Smith
writes:
Amartya Sen (2009)
has drawn inspiration from Smith in developing his own theory of social justice
and Samuel Fleischacker (2004) has made the case for reading Smith as a
precursor of modern notions of social justice. Iain McLean (2006), on the other
hand, makes the stronger claim that Smith’s true legacy lies, not with the
libertarian economists of the Adam Smith Institute, but rather with the social
democrats of the John Smith Institute. In all three cases the broad claim is
that there are grounds for associating Smith with the modern egalitarian idea
of social justice understood as the state-backed redistribution of wealth to
ameliorate the effects of poverty.” …
…. That he is wary
of any automatic reliance on the political process and the state to pursue our
social objectives is admitted even by those such as Fleischacker who want to
reclaim Smith for the left. As Fleischacker (2004, p. 241) also admits, this
points us toward a presumption against the state and a presumption in favour of
private action by voluntary associations of individuals. But if this is the
locus for the exercise of beneficence and the provision of public works then we
are dealing with something very different from the modern debates about
intra-national transfers or even international transfers and distributive
patterns.
Craig Smith goes
on to say that what this implies for a ‘Smith-based’ notion of distributive or
social justice is clear,
we should take
more seriously Smith’s silence on modern distributive justice, his desire to
place conceptual distance between beneficence and justice, his distrust of the
political process and his temperamental distaste for utopianism. And we should
pay more attention to his localist, prudential category of police and his
desire to press a normative distinction between strict principles of justice
and political or beneficent decisions guided by expediency. These are not
accidental aspects of Smith’s thinking, however imperfectly they are carried
over into his own policy prescriptions. They suggest a very different
understanding of the normative ideal of justice and one that might actually
give us good reasons to doubt the efficacy of thinking about our moral
obligations to the poor and welfare provision in terms of social justice. …
… When thinking of
our moral obligations a related question about Adam Smith’s thinking is raised
by Maria Pia Paganelli in a chapter forthcoming in the Oxford Handbook on Adam Smith. Paganelli asks why Smith promotes
free markets and argues that he promotes them for at least two reasons:
efficiency and morality. In terms of morality Paganelli argues that Smith
thought that markets can foster morality just as much as morality can foster
markets. Paganelli concludes her chapter by noting:
“Adam Smith
favours commerce on grounds of both morality and efficiency. Commerce is
intertwined with morals, it supports moral development and at the same time it
is supported by it. Commerce requires morals for its functioning and gives the
conditions under which people can live, can live freely, and can live morally…
Returning to the
question of whether Adam Smith was “left or right” James Otteson writes in the
epilogue to his 2011 book Adam Smith:
‘He [Smith] was
instead an old-fashioned liberal: favoring individual liberty, endorsing state
institutions to protect this liberty, and, where they conflicted, favoring the
individual over the state as a default. But he was also a sceptical empiricist.
He favored free trade, free markets, and a government robust but limited to the
enforcement of a few central tasks not because they comported with a priori
principles but because they seemed to work.
It is worth noting
that this sceptical empiricist approach to markets, trade and government rather
than an a priori principle approach would most likely disqualify Smith as a
libertarian, at least of the Radian or Nozickean kind.
Otteson goes on to
say, “Smith’s concern with the poor leads some commentators to suggest that he
must have been a proto-“progressive” liberal, since, as some believe, only
progressive liberals care about the poor. Samuel Fleischacker, for example,
argues that Smith’s concern for the poor is one reason to see him as “left-leaning”
rather than “right-leaning”. Concern for the poor is, however, hardly the
exclusive provenance of the political left. And Smith’s strong arguments in
favor of decentralization of power, competition, and free markets would seem to
put him rather on the right of today’s political spectrum than on the left.”
Comment
[You must follow
the link to the “Anti-Dismal” Blog and read the entire post for an erudite
discussion of recent contributions by Smithian scholars at the highest levels
of scholarship.]
I have met and
discussed Adam Smith with all of the distinguished authors mentioned in the
post and have followed the issues they debate in recent years, including the
specific issues raised in the post.
Currently, I am
working on aspects of these issues particularly in relation to the Left”- “Right”
distinctions made in these debates and how they relate to the invisible-hand
metaphor and its modern connotations.
I am often asked
why I make such a fuss over a metaphor used by Adam Smith in the 18th-century. However, Smith’s use of the IH metaphor
is of underlying importance today given its prominence in modern debates on the
market-state’s roles and share in the GDP of all countries.
Moreover, the
protagonists in and around governments base much of their different perceptions
of how much is enough on the supposed roles in the success and failures of
whichever mix of proportions of State/market roles are permitted in their GDP on
supposed recommendations for or against by Adam Smith. Do we rely on the “invisible-hand’
of markets for most of our GDP or the “visible hand” of the state? Or do we raise questions about what is
meant by these categories?
Why do markets
need an “invisible hand” to operate when markets work perfectly well only by
very visible prices and could not work without their visibility? Why do states that work under
conditions of invisible power deals, personal ambitions, private invisible
lobbying – and not a little invisible corruption - become somehow categorised
as “visible”, apart from it being a term popular with politicians?
This is a rich field well
beyond interest in the search for Adam Smith’s politics. Even if he had been alive, I doubt if
he would have chosen to sit on the left or the right side of any Assembly. He did not have a vote in 18th-century Scotland
and would have been disinclined to exercise it even if had a vote. He believed that as a philosopher that his role was to “do nothing but observe everything”.
4 Comments:
"He believed that as a philosopher that his role was to “do nothing but observe everything”.
I wonder what Adam Smith's observation might be today about the debated going on about his IH metaphor.
I think he would certainly be amused. I don't think he would be so upset, as some, at the teachings of Paul Samuelson about it. Smith would think Samuelson's meaning of it was merely a sign of the times. After all, the metaphor was not cast in stone. And really, is Samuelson's that distorted?
Would the world be a better or different place if it took Smith's literal meaning of the invisible hand? Anyway, I don't think his meaning of it is applicable to the world of today.
Darwin was also an observer, like Smith. Through his observing he came up with his theory of 'natural selection'.
Somebody pointed out that natural selection is also 'invisible'. And this is what Smith saw in his invisible hand, a natural selection in economic activity. In Smith's mind this natural selection, in the social context, in the form of an invisible hand, would amount to something mutually beneficial.
Today we have capitalism as our chief economic engine, which came up through the ranks via the process of natural selection and the invisible.
airth
Comment 1:
The quotation is from Smith's Works. It mans what it says about philosopher's duties (Smith: History of Astronomy).
Metaphors do have changed uses, as the invisible hand was used by Smith. They also conform to the grammatical rules of metaphoric statements - they describe "in a more striking and interesting manner" their "objects" (Smith "Lectures in Rhetoric"). However, they relate in all uses to a specific object; if the object changes, so does the meaning of the metaphor.
Samuelson changed the "object" - Smith's metaphoric use did not apply; Samuelson's metaphoric meaning therefore was different from Smith's.
Comment 2: You don't say who "pointed out that natural selection was invisible". Darwin explained "natural selection"; he observed the outcome of successive changes over long periods, mostly unobserved. The outcomes were very visible, that is how Darwin developed his theory of natural selection and from observation described the process. Some instances were actually visible in a human lifetime - the changes in butterflies during the industrial revolution, etc.
Smith explained the cause of certain changes in society - those causes were identified in each f his three uses, but motives of individual cases were invisible - the outcomes were very visible, but the IH metaphor was about the causes not the visible outcomes,
You have mixed up causes with outcomes and wrongly identified one with the other.
Gavin
I like the connection between an invisible hand and natural selection. There is kind of a 'spontaneous order' that arises from both of them.
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